Wednesday, March 12, 2014

Prejudice for or against?

In a post on the changing state of marriage (see no 6 in post below for link) this statement is made:

"What once again is clear when those who say the debates are not sourced in prejudice about homosexuality, but are about integrity to scripture and tradition, is that whilst a sea change has occurred in the understanding of marriage, they have only begun to register an issue when the direction heads towards committed same-sex couples."

Is the situation as straightforward as made out here?

In my mind the following questions are registering:

(a) If debates on the changing state of marriage focus on enlarging the definition of marriage to include two men or two women but not brother and sister nor three or more partners is there a prejudice for same sex partnerships and against incestuous and polygamous relationships?

(b) Put another way, if the question of change to understanding to marriage is pressed to make further change to marriage, why does it stop at a certain point and not continue? (Note: this is a double-edged question within current debates because it is precisely the question which advocates of same sex marriage can ask about the advocacy of remarriage after divorce. Nevertheless I suggest it is an important question at any point in advocacy of change).

(c) If previous change to marriage is the most pressing reason for further change to marriage (as appears to be the case in some expressions of current debate), is that a strength or a weakness? Is it not a weakness in the argument if the church reforms its understanding of marriage in a conservative direction?

No comments:

Post a Comment